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Changed : New exam content outline; passing score · BCEN

The trauma continuum, bay to discharge

TCRN · Continuum of care · 36 of 150 scored items

The widest domain on the outline follows one patient past the injury: resuscitation and blood, shock, the days of complications in the unit, then rehabilitation, discharge or end of life.

Start the TCRN practice testTCRN overview

From resuscitation to rehabilitation

BCEN's headings (content outline), lightly grouped:

  • Resuscitation: primary and secondary survey, blood and massive transfusion, coagulant therapy, damage control, the lethal diamond, getting a patient ready for intubation.
  • Shock of every type seen after injury.
  • Acute care: reassessment, transfusion reactions such as TRALI and TACO, the tertiary exam, complications and hospital events.
  • The person after the injury: psychosocial care, rehabilitation and multidisciplinary care, discharge planning.
  • End of life: organ and tissue donation, brain death.
  • Before and between hospitals: injury prevention, prehospital care, transfer within and between facilities.

18 resuscitation and recovery items

0 of 18 attempted · 0 correct · 0 missed

Continuum of Care for Trauma · 36 items

A patient freed after 6 hours under rubble has a creatine kinase of 60,000 units/L. The nurse should anticipate which combination of electrolyte changes?

Answer and why, all 4 options

This reverses every value; rhabdomyolysis leaks intracellular ions out, raising potassium and phosphate rather than lowering them.

Crushed muscle releases potassium and phosphate into the blood once flow returns, and calcium deposits into damaged muscle, so the pattern is high potassium, high phosphate, and low calcium. Hyperkalemia is the immediate threat to the heart.

Potassium is right, but calcium falls early as it binds to injured muscle; hypercalcemia may appear only during recovery, when deposits are released.

Low potassium misses the most dangerous change; cell breakdown releases potassium and can cause fatal dysrhythmias.

Item 535540

Continuum of Care for Trauma · 36 items

A patient arrives after a motor vehicle crash with GCS 3, fixed dilated pupils, BP 72/40 mm Hg, and SpO₂ 82%. A team member says the injury is unsurvivable. The nurse should advocate for:

Answer and why, all 4 options

Moving to comfort care before resuscitation and imaging assumes a prognosis that has not been established.

Stopping now acts on an exam distorted by shock and hypoxia; reversible causes have not been treated.

Determining death by neurologic criteria requires prerequisites, including normal blood pressure, oxygenation, and temperature; testing during shock is invalid.

Hypotension and hypoxia can produce fixed pupils and a GCS of 3 on their own, so a neurologic prognosis is unreliable until perfusion and oxygenation are restored. The nurse advocates correcting shock and hypoxia and then reassessing.

Item 535767

Continuum of Care for Trauma · 36 items

A patient on long-term methadone has missed doses during a 3-day admission for a femur fracture. The patient now has yawning, rhinorrhea, dilated pupils, piloerection, and abdominal cramps. These findings suggest:

Answer and why, all 4 options

Anticholinergic toxicity dries the patient out, with hot, dry skin and urinary retention; rhinorrhea and cramping are the opposite.

Yawning, rhinorrhea, dilated pupils, piloerection, and cramps after missed methadone doses are classic opioid withdrawal. The nurse confirms the home dose with the opioid treatment program and anticipates continuing methadone, with added short-acting opioids for acute pain.

Alcohol withdrawal brings tremor, diaphoresis, hypertension, and possible seizures or hallucinations; yawning and piloerection point to opioids.

Serotonin toxicity causes hyperthermia, clonus, hyperreflexia, and agitation, not yawning and gooseflesh.

Item 535963

Continuum of Care for Trauma · 36 items

A patient who had an emergency splenectomy for a splenic injury is ready for discharge on postoperative day 5. The patient lives 3 hours away and may not return for follow-up. Before discharge, the nurse should ensure that the patient:

Answer and why, all 4 options

Without a spleen, the patient has a lifelong risk of overwhelming infection from encapsulated bacteria. After an emergency splenectomy, vaccines are ideally given about 14 days after surgery, but they are given before discharge when follow-up is uncertain, with teaching to seek care at once for any fever.

Waiting months leaves the patient unprotected during the period of highest risk; vaccination is not delayed past the early postoperative weeks.

Antibiotic prophylaxis after splenectomy targets long-term infection risk, mainly in children, not wound healing, and it does not replace vaccination.

Routine counts do not prevent infection; a reactive rise in white cells and platelets after splenectomy is expected.

Item 9720005

Continuum of Care for Trauma · 36 items

A ventilated patient with a C6 spinal cord injury receiving norepinephrine is being prepared for interfacility transfer. Which finding MOST requires attention before departure?

Answer and why, all 4 options

A falling saturation on FiO₂ 0.50 shows worsening gas exchange, common after cervical cord injury from weak cough, retained secretions, and atelectasis. It must be assessed and corrected before departure, because rescue is harder once the patient is in the vehicle.

A hematocrit stable on two checks shows no new blood loss; it supports departure rather than delaying it.

A slightly low temperature reflects impaired thermoregulation below the injury; it calls for warming during the trip, not a delay.

Bradycardia is expected after a cervical cord injury from lost sympathetic tone, and a MAP of 88 mm Hg is within the usual target; this is treatment working.

Item 2100369

Continuum of Care for Trauma · 36 items

A patient with a catastrophic TBI is being evaluated for death by neurologic criteria after all prerequisites are met. Which finding precludes the determination of brain death?

Answer and why, all 4 options

Nonreactive pupils are expected in brain death; they are required findings, not exclusions.

Absent brainstem reflexes are part of the criteria, so they support the determination rather than preclude it.

Triple flexion is a spinal reflex that can persist after brain death; mistaking it for brain activity delays the determination.

Death by neurologic criteria requires apnea, meaning no respiratory effort when PaCO₂ rises during the apnea test. Any spontaneous breath shows brainstem function and precludes the determination.

Item 2100388

Continuum of Care for Trauma · 36 items

A patient with a seat-belt sign was discharged after a CT read as normal and returned 36 hours later with peritonitis from a small-bowel injury. In trauma PI, this event is classified as a:

Answer and why, all 4 options

Under-triage refers to a seriously injured patient sent to a lower level of care from the field; this patient reached the hospital and was evaluated.

An injury not identified during the initial evaluation that later declares itself is classified in trauma performance improvement as a missed injury with delayed diagnosis. It triggers case review of imaging, tertiary survey, and discharge criteria.

A small-bowel injury that was present on arrival is not a complication of care; calling it unavoidable closes the review before the process is examined.

Over-triage means a minimally injured patient sent to or transferred for a higher level of care; it does not describe a missed diagnosis.

Item 2100454

Continuum of Care for Trauma · 36 items

A patient with a penetrating abdominal wound has received 6 L of normal saline. BP briefly rose to 98/62 mm Hg, but the abdomen is more distended, pH is 7.18, temperature is 95.4 °F (35.2 °C), and INR is 2.4. These findings MOST likely reflect:

Answer and why, all 4 options

Six liters of saline dilutes clotting factors, worsens acidosis with chloride, cools the patient, and increases bowel and abdominal wall edema. Acidosis, hypothermia, and coagulopathy here are the lethal triad driven by crystalloid, which is why bleeding patients get early balanced blood products instead.

Rising distension with acidosis, hypothermia, and coagulopathy signals uncontrolled bleeding and harmful resuscitation, not the usual course of an abdominal wound.

The coagulopathy developed alongside hypothermia, acidosis, and large-volume saline; it is acquired, not an underlying bleeding disorder.

A brief rise in blood pressure while the pH, temperature, and INR worsen is not success; it reflects transient filling while hemorrhage and its complications progress.

Item 2100534

Continuum of Care for Trauma · 36 items

A patient with a liver laceration has received 8 units of blood products, and BP has improved from 76/42 to 106/64 mm Hg. Which finding MOST strongly indicates that bleeding is continuing?

Answer and why, all 4 options

A rising lactate shows that tissue perfusion is still inadequate even though the blood pressure looks better, which points to continued hemorrhage. Lactate trend is a better marker of resuscitation than blood pressure alone.

A falling heart rate after transfusion suggests improving volume status, the opposite of ongoing bleeding.

A stable hemoglobin during transfusion is reassuring; hemoglobin also lags in acute bleeding, so it is a weaker signal than lactate.

An hourly urine output of 40 mL meets the usual adult target and suggests adequate renal perfusion.

Item 2100536

Continuum of Care for Trauma · 36 items

EMS gave tranexamic acid 1 g IV over 10 minutes before arrival, 35 minutes after injury. The patient remains in hemorrhagic shock. The nurse should anticipate:

Answer and why, all 4 options

Stopping after the bolus leaves the regimen incomplete; the maintenance gram is part of the dosing that showed benefit.

A second bolus doubles the loading dose rather than continuing the regimen; the second gram is given as a slow infusion.

The CRASH-2 regimen is 1 g IV over 10 minutes within 3 hours of injury, then 1 g infused over 8 hours. EMS gave the loading dose, so the hospital continues with the maintenance infusion.

There is no evidence for a 2 g bolus after a 1 g loading dose, and higher doses raise the risk of seizures and thrombosis.

Item 2100537

Continuum of Care for Trauma · 36 items

During massive transfusion with uncrossmatched blood, units arrive rapidly and several team members are hanging products. Which nursing action BEST prevents a transfusion error?

Answer and why, all 4 options

Order of packing says nothing about whether a unit belongs to this patient; it replaces verification with habit.

Uncrossmatched units still have to match the patient; skipping the check removes the last barrier against giving a unit meant for someone else.

Wrong-blood transfusions happen most often when speed overrides identification. Even with emergency-release blood, every unit is checked against the patient's ID band by two people at the bedside, often with a temporary trauma identifier.

Each unit is a separate chance for error; checking one unit per cooler leaves the rest unprotected.

Item 2100580

Continuum of Care for Trauma · 36 items

A patient's spouse asks to be present while the trauma team performs CPR after a crash. The nurse should:

Answer and why, all 4 options

Without a support person, no one explains what is happening or helps if the spouse becomes overwhelmed.

Studies have not found that family presence increases litigation; refusing on that basis takes away an option families value.

ENA and AACN guidance supports offering family members the option to be present during resuscitation, with a staff member assigned to explain what is happening and support them. Family presence helps families cope and has not been shown to disrupt care or increase lawsuits.

Making presence depend on stability means the family misses the moments they most often want to witness, and it is not what the guidelines recommend.

Item 9720006

Continuum of Care for Trauma · 36 items

A 19-year-old is recovering from a gunshot wound to the thigh sustained in a neighborhood shooting. This is the patient's second admission for an assault-related injury in a year. Before discharge, the nurse should:

Answer and why, all 4 options

Simple advice rarely changes risk without the services and follow-up that a program provides.

Patients admitted for assault, and especially for a repeat injury, are at high risk of being hurt again. Hospital-based violence intervention programs begin at the bedside, linking the patient with trained case workers, mental health care, and practical support, and they have reduced repeat violent injury; trauma center standards expect centers to address violent injury.

Written advice alone does not change the circumstances that lead to reinjury and offers no ongoing support.

Discharging without intervention ignores the strongest predictor of future violent injury, a prior one.

Item 9720007

Continuum of Care for Trauma · 36 items

EMS reports a 72-year-old taking warfarin who fell from standing, struck the head, and is newly confused but follows commands. BP is 132/80 mm Hg, HR 94 beats/min, and SpO₂ 96%. Under the 2021 field triage guideline, the patient should go to:

Answer and why, all 4 options

The 2021 National Guideline for the Field Triage of Injured Patients lists anticoagulant use and older age with low-energy falls among the yellow criteria, which direct transport to a trauma center (not necessarily the highest level). New confusion on warfarin raises concern for intracranial bleeding.

Leaving a confused, anticoagulated patient at home risks a delayed, expanding hemorrhage without imaging or reversal.

Urgent care centers cannot manage intracranial bleeding or reverse anticoagulation; the patient needs a trauma-capable facility.

Normal vital signs do not exclude intracranial hemorrhage in an anticoagulated older adult; the triage guideline sends these patients to a trauma center.

Item 2100420

Continuum of Care for Trauma · 36 items

Surgical control of bleeding has been achieved, and a patient on the massive transfusion protocol now has stable vital signs and minimal drain output. The nurse should:

Answer and why, all 4 options

Blood products go back to the blood bank, which controls storage and reissue; unit refrigerators are not validated for blood storage.

Giving fixed-ratio coolers after bleeding stops risks volume overload, TACO, and TRALI; transfusion becomes goal-directed.

Leaving the protocol running ties up scarce products and invites transfusion without indication; MTP is for active hemorrhage only.

Once hemorrhage is controlled and the patient is stable, the massive transfusion protocol is formally deactivated so the blood bank stops preparing coolers. Further products are then ordered by need and lab values, which prevents waste and overtransfusion.

Item 2100581

Continuum of Care for Trauma · 36 items

An intubated, sedated trauma patient with heavy daily alcohol use is at risk for withdrawal. The nurse recognizes that the CIWA-Ar:

Answer and why, all 4 options

The GCS measures level of consciousness, not withdrawal; it cannot detect autonomic hyperactivity or agitation from alcohol withdrawal.

The CIWA-Ar scores items such as nausea, anxiety, headache, and orientation that require the patient to answer, so it cannot be used in an intubated, sedated patient. Withdrawal in these patients is tracked with sedation scales and objective signs.

Scoring a tool that depends on self-report in a sedated patient produces meaningless numbers and can lead to under- or overtreatment.

Family cannot report the patient's current symptoms; the tool measures what the patient feels now.

Item 535585

Continuum of Care for Trauma · 36 items

On day 2 after a high-speed crash, a patient who was intubated on arrival is extubated and alert. The admission trauma CT showed only a liver laceration. The patient now reports pain in the left wrist. The nurse should:

Answer and why, all 4 options

Waiting for outpatient follow-up risks malunion and loses the window for early fixation.

A trauma CT of the head, spine, chest, abdomen, and pelvis usually does not include the hands and wrists; treating it as complete coverage is how extremity fractures are missed.

Labeling new localized pain as positional without examining the wrist skips the very step the tertiary survey exists for.

The tertiary survey repeats a full head-to-toe exam within about 24 hours and again when the patient can first report pain, because extremity fractures are the injuries most often missed in intubated multitrauma patients. A new localized complaint gets a focused exam and plain radiographs.

Item 9720001

Continuum of Care for Trauma · 36 items

During ongoing resuscitation, a bleeding trauma patient's thromboelastography (TEG) shows a prolonged R time with a normal maximum amplitude and a normal LY30. The nurse anticipates an order for:

Answer and why, all 4 options

Cryoprecipitate replaces fibrinogen and is guided by a reduced alpha angle or low functional fibrinogen; the abnormal value here is the R time.

TXA is guided by an elevated LY30, which shows the clot breaking down early; a normal LY30 means fibrinolysis is not the problem.

The R time is the delay before fibrin first forms, which depends on clotting factors. A prolonged R with a normal maximum amplitude and LY30 points to factor deficiency, treated with plasma; viscoelastic results let the team target products once fixed-ratio resuscitation has bought time.

Platelets are guided by a low maximum amplitude, the measure of clot strength; the MA here is normal.

Item 9720004

Your score: – fills in as you answer; nothing is saved.Doubt a key? Note the item number — how corrections work →

Resuscitation and recovery traps

  • Airway before the bleeding. ATLS 11th edition (2025) puts control of exsanguinating external hemorrhage first, then the airway (xABCDE).
  • Red cells alone in a massive transfusion. Massive transfusion aims for a balanced ratio of plasma, platelets and red cells, roughly 1:1:1 as in the PROPPR trial, or whole blood where the center stocks it.
  • Tranexamic acid late. In CRASH-2 the benefit was confined to the first 3 hours after injury; given later it was associated with more deaths from bleeding.
  • A triad when the outline says diamond. Hypothermia, acidosis and coagulopathy now come with hypocalcemia, driven by citrate in transfused products, so ionized calcium is checked and replaced during a massive transfusion.
  • Permissive hypotension for everyone. A lower pressure target until bleeding is controlled does not apply to brain or cord injury, where hypotension worsens outcome.
  • TRALI or TACO. Both bring hypoxemia within hours of a transfusion. TRALI is noncardiogenic, often with fever and low pressure, and diuretics do not help. TACO is volume overload, with hypertension, a raised BNP and a response to diuretics.
  • Plasma first for warfarin. Four-factor prothrombin complex concentrate with IV vitamin K reverses faster, per the 2020 ACC expert consensus on bleeding with oral anticoagulants.
  • Asking the family about donation yourself. CMS conditions of participation require timely referral of an imminent death to the organ procurement organization; the request to the family comes from the OPO or a trained designated requester.
  • Calling it PTSD in week one. Symptoms between 3 days and 1 month after the event fit acute stress disorder; PTSD needs more than a month (DSM-5-TR).

From resuscitation to discharge, on your phone

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Other domains of the TCRN outline

Continuum of care, quick answers

Is prehospital care part of the TCRN?

Yes. The outline lists prehospital care, injury prevention and transfers within and between facilities in this domain, so expect field triage and EMS handoff questions even if you work inside the hospital.

Does the TCRN cover organ donation and brain death?

Both are named under end of life in this domain, along with tissue donation.